Is surgery a better option considering the patient cannot be managed conservatively? *Chief Complaints* 50 years old female with pain in right knee and anterior leg since 2 years. Swelling over anterior aspect of right leg, non-pitting, firm, some tenderness. *History* Homemaker, No H/o HTN DMT2 Trauma. Known case of GERD, symptoms controlled on Pantoprazole. Multiple NSAID intolerance. Symptoms controlled on nimesulide occasionally. *Vitals* Vitals are WNL *Physical Examination* No clicks or crepitus. Drawer signs WNL. Pain on weight bearing. *Investigations* MRI attached. CBC, calcium, thyroid function WNL